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It has been argued that the system of
philosophy which is known as Vedanta, propounded by Acharya Sankara,
is not a philosophical system, since it accepts the authority of the Scripture,
and philosophy does not accept scriptural testimony as a test of truth. To this
point of view, several answers may perhaps be appropriate. Firstly, the term 'Vedanta'
as 'Advaita' need not necessarily be associated with Sankara, because it stands
for a way of thinking or a doctrine which can be promulgated by a methodology
of reason. Even if Sankara were not to be born, this system of human thought
would remain as a way of possible logical analysis and synthesis. Perhaps it
would not be difficult to see that the conclusions which are associated with
Advaita can be drawn even without reference to any scripture or theological
background. That historical circumstances required Acharya Sankara to consider
Scripture as the final authority would not preclude the great logical acumen
which is demonstrated in his writings, which can stand independently as a
supreme philosophical system, even without any reference to Scripture. Hence, a
true student of philosophy need not have to mix up the theological atmosphere
of Sankara's times with the philosophical conclusions that he drew by pure
reason alone.
Further, it is strange that philosophy
should be interpreted as a position totally opposed to Scripture or
irreconcilable with Scripture, if we are to consider Scripture as an accepted
hypothesis which itself cannot be questioned, and not necessarily a book
written by someone or even revealed to anyone. Which scientific method or
philosophic situation can be said to be free from the necessity to be finally
grounded on some hypothesis on which it bases itself and on whose pedestal it
raises the edifice of its system? How would science or philosophy or any
thinking process at all assume a sense or meaning if it is not to found itself
on some irrefutable fact which is already accepted not as something deduced
from a premise, since a premise itself cannot be deduced? Indian philosophers,
whether they accept the authority of Scripture or not, had also amply revealed
in their expositions the great power of reason which, while it was not
necessary for it to refute Scripture, could also stand on its own legs.
It is also argued that the Advaita position
that Brahman 'is' consciousness is a sort of self-contradiction, for
consciousness is a quality. To this, it has to be said that consciousness is
certainly not a quality, nor can it be a product of the conjunction of the
subject and the object as some thinkers have tried to establish. If
consciousness were a quality, it would have to be a quality of something other
than consciousness, but what on earth can that be which is other than
consciousness? That so-called something which is other than consciousness has
necessarily to be also that which is not known to consciousness, in which case
it cannot be related to consciousness, and consciousness cannot be related to
it. Where then comes the question of consciousness being a quality of anything
at all? Secondly, it is contended that the Advaita conclusion that Brahman, the
Absolute, is consciousness is not tenable, for, it is argued, the statement "Brahman
is consciousness" is tautological. The point is that if Brahman is
consciousness, it would be like saying that Brahman is Brahman, and to say that
Brahman is consciousness would be like an analytic judgment, not a synthetic
one, adding no new information to the subject Brahman, since Brahman is
already said to be consciousness. This objection arises on account of
introducing the defects of linguistic grammar into a philosophic proposition,
for we cannot see any tautology in the statement that Brahman is consciousness,
inasmuch as the statement is intended to describe the characteristic of
Brahman, or, we may say, the constituent essence of Brahman, or, rather, more
precisely, what Brahman is. Hence, the statement, "Brahman is consciousness"
does not introduce the conjunction 'and', so that there should be Brahman 'and'
consciousness in order that Brahman may be consciousness. The grammatical
copula 'is', in the statement "Brahman is consciousness", does not distinguish
between Brahman and consciousness, but is only a verbal contrivance
necessitated by the exigency of grammar. The spirit of the statement is the
real philosophic position, and not the form of the linguistic structure of the
sentence. It is well known that every sentence involves a subject and a
predicate linked together by a verb. Only, in the present context, neither
Brahman nor consciousness can be taken as a predicate, because one and the same
thing is asserted even when two terms are used. Thus, it appears that the
objection is not philosophical. The statement "Brahman is consciousness" cannot
be considered as a truism, as if it is a well known fact, for it requires an
elucidatory effort to come to the conclusion that the nature of Brahman is
consciousness. If a father makes a statement, "Rama is my son", it does not
follow that the statement is tautological or a truism, for, while Rama and son
mean one and the same person, the one term explains the intrinsic nature of
that which is indicated by the other.
It has often been glibly and sarcastically
opined by many a thinker that the Advaita doctrine propounds the unreality of
the world, the illusoriness of all things, that nothing exists at all. While
the process of an investigation into the validity of the question of the
unreality of the world is a little intricate and need not be discussed here, it
is not true that the Advaita crudely brushes aside the content of world-experience
as a literal unreality. No content of an experience can be regarded as totally
unreal as long as there is such a thing as experience, and no one with the
least sense would dub an experience as unreal as long as it remains an
experience. But, while it is certainly true that the very meaning of experience
is that it 'is there', and no one will speak of it if it is not there, no
experience can be considered as unreal, as long as it 'is' an experience,
whether it is of the world or anything else. Yet, there is certainly something
more to be said about this phenomenon. Would we call it an experience when it
is contradicted by another experience subsequently following it? The famous
analogy of the experience of a snake in the rope is before us. Is the snake
real? No one would say that it is unreal, for it is a content of experience
which is real. But, at the same time, there is a point which requires a more
judicious consideration of the issue, since, in a different experience which is
of the rope, the snake is realised to be unreal. Who would ever regard the
snake as a reality on the perception of the rope as a real experience? It
appears to us that the analogy of the snake and the rope, which is so well
known, is not a puerile connivance of some psychological whim, but a most apt
illustration of the position of the world as a whole and of man's location in
the world. It would thus be obvious how one and the same proposition can be
unreal as well as real in two different contexts, while not being self-contradictory
as a blending of totally opposite positions.
It may also be added here that it would not
be wisdom to stretch even the weapon of logic to its breaking point, for logic
is a function of reason operating on the dichotomy of the subject and the
object, while at the same time feeling the necessity to bring together the two
as an integral statement.
If there are no proofs that can demonstrate
Brahman's reality, this need not be considered as a serious defect in the
situation. Rather, it should be happily accepted as the glory of truth itself,
which is also associated with Eternity. How is one to prove the eternal through
noneternal means, and what eternal means are available to man in a world of
temporal processes? What proof does one expect to establish the existence of
Brahman, as Brahman is the basis of all proof, the indubitable existence as the
very self of the one who argues and thinks in terms of proof ? How would it be
proved by some other proof, and where is the point in expecting a proof at
all?
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